The US BANK-BOA-LaSalle-CitiGroup Shell Game
by Neil Garfield
'The
bottom line is that the notice of substitution of Plaintiff in judicial
states, or notice of substitution of Trustee in non-judicial states
should be the first line of battle. Neither one of them is valid and in
both cases you have a stranger to the transaction being allowed to name
itself as creditor, name its own controlled entity or subsidiary as
trustee, and then ignore the realities of the money paid to the real
creditor. They are claiming damages from the borrower --- all for a debt
that in the ordinary course of things has already been paid several
times over. But it is true that it wasn't paid to THEM because THEY were
never and are not now the creditor fulfilling the definition of a
creditor who could bid at the foreclosure auction. It is not that the
borrower doesn't owe money when he borrows it, it is that he doesn't owe
it to any of the people who are claiming it. And that is what gives
rise to liability of law firms to borrowers." Neil F Garfield, http://www.livinglies.me
If
our information can be corroborated through discovery with a corporate
representative of US BANK or Chase Bank as the servicer, it is possible
that a solid cause of action can be filed against the law firm that
brought the action, particularly if the law firm took its instructions
from the Desktop system of LPS.
In
that system law firms are instructed to file foreclosures without
contact with the actual client. We saw several cases where sanctions
were levied against lawyers and their alleged clients, but none so stark
as the one in Florida where the lawyer for US Bank as Trustee for XXX,
when faced with questions he couldn't answer admitted that he had never
spoken with anyone from U.S> Bank and didn't know who had retained
his firm.
The
law firm that brought the foreclosure action and especially the law
firm that is demanding an assignment of rent to protect a creditor who
has already been paid through non stop servicer advances was most likely
not authorized to demand the assignment of rents which might be why
there was no written demand as required by statute. I am considering the
possibility of an actual lawsuit against one such law firm for
interference with contract on both the foreclosure and the assignment of
rents issue.
The
Banks are being very cagey about this system --- one which they would
never use for their own portfolio loans, which begs the question of why
they would have two entirely different system of accounting and legal
process. But the long and the short of it is that LPS in Jacksonville,
Florida is used much the same way as MERS. It maintains a database
service that requires a user name and password and that gives unlimited
access to the client folders. Anyone can go in and authorize the
foreclosure based upon a default that is invested by the person entering
the data. They leave out any servicer advances or other third party
payments and arrive at an amount to reinstate that is just plain wrong.
So virtually all notices of default are wrong which means that the
required notice is defective.
You
should know that many judges appear unimpressed that there was no valid
assignment of the mortgage. I think that it is clearly reversible
error. The assignment frequently is clearly fabricated and back-dated
because of references to events that happened a year after the
assignment was executed. The assignment clearly did not exist at the
time of the lawsuit and the standing issue is clear under Florida law
although some courts are balking at the idea that standing cannot be
cured after the lawsuit. The reasoning is quite simple --- if it were
otherwise, you could file suit against a grocery store for a slip and
fall, and the go over to the store to have your slip and fall.
In
one of my cases involving multiple properties, they have an assignment
that was prepared and executed by Shapiro and Fishman supposedly dated
in 2007 ---- but it refers to Bank of America as successor by merger to
LaSalle. it is backdated, fabricated and fictional, which is to say,
fraudulent.
The assignment has two problems ---
FACIALLY DEFECTIVE FABRICATION OF ASSIGNMENT: the first problem is
that the alleged BOA merger with LaSalle could not have happened before
2008 --- one year after the assignment was executed.
So the 2007 assignment refers to a future event that was not reported
by BOA until 2008, and was not approved by the Federal Reserve until
2008. On its face, then, based upon public record, the assignment is
void as a total fabrication.
The
second problem is that it is unclear as to how the merger could have
occurred between BOA and La Salle, to wit:. you might need to read this a
few times to understand the complexity of the issues involved ---
issues that few judges or lawyers are interested enough to master.
LASALLE ABN AMRO ACQUISITION: Since neither entity vanished in the deal it is an acquisition and not a merger. LaSalle and ABN AMRO did a reverse merger in 2007.
LASALLE ABN AMRO ACQUISITION: Since neither entity vanished in the deal it is an acquisition and not a merger. LaSalle and ABN AMRO did a reverse merger in 2007.
That means that while LASalle was technically the acquirer, because it "bought" ABN AMRO, and ABN AMRO became a subsidiary --- the reality is that LaSalle issued so many shares for the acquisition of ABN AMRO that the ABN AMRO shareholders received the overwhelming majority of LaSalle Shares compared to the former owners of LaSalle shares.Hence in substance LaSalle Bank was a subsidiary of ABN AMRO and the consolidated financial statements show it. But in form it appears as the parent.So if someone, like BOA, was to say they merged with or acquired LaSalle, they would also be saying that included its subsidiary ABN AMRO --- and they would have to do the deal with the shareholders of ABN AMRO because those shareholders control LaSalle Bank, which brings us to CitiGroup ----
CITIGROUP MERGER WITH ABN AMRO: Also
in 2007, CitiGroup announced and continues to file sworn statements
with the SEC that it had merged with ABN AMRO, which means, if you
followed the above, that CitiGroup actually owned LaSalle. It looks more
like an acquisition than a merger to me but the wording makes it
unclear. This would mean that LaSalle still technically exists as a
subsidiary of CitiGroup.
ALLEGED
BOA MERGER WITH LASALLE: In 2008 the Federal Reserve issued an order
approving the merger of BOA and LaSalle, in which case LaSalle vanishes
--- but ABN AMRO is the one with all the assets. BUT LaSalle is named as
Trustee of the asset pool. And the only other allowable trustee would
be another bank that merged with LaSalle as a successor without the
requirement of filing more papers to be a Trustee and BOA clearly
qualifies on all counts for that. Section 8.09 of PSA.
But the Federal Reserve order states that the identities of ABN AMRO and LaSalle are the same and the acquisition of one is the acquisition of the other --- thus unintentionally ratifying CitiGroup's apparent position that it owns ABN AMRO and thus LaSalle.Findings of fact by an administrative agency are presumptively true although subject to rebuttal.Here is the kicker: there is no further mention in any SEC filings of a merger between BOA and LaSalle, unless I missed it. There is no reference to the fact that CitiGroup controlled LaSalle and ABN AMRO at the time of the Federal Reserve order approving the BOA merger with LaSalle Bank in 2008.CitiGroup has not, to my knowledge ever reported the sale or loss or merger of LaSalle. Since Citi made the acquisition before BOA, and since BOA apparently did not buy LaSalle from Citi, how could BOA claim to be a successor by merger with LaSalle?
Hence there are questions of fact as to whether BOA ever consummated any transaction in which it acquired or Merged with LaSalle, which while technically possible, makes no business sense. UNLESS the OBJECTIVE was to transfer the interest of LaSalle as trustee to BOA, as a precursor to a much wider deal in which BOA then sold its position as Trustee to US Bank as a commodity and then filed in the Kalam cases a notice of substitution of Plaintiff without amending the pleadings.
US BANK Notice of Substitution of Plaintiff without Any Motion to Amend Pleadings:
The reason they filed it as a notice was that they obviously did not
want to allege the purchase of "being a trustee", which would have been a
contested issue in the pleadings. But
the amendment is required in my opinion and there should be a motion to
strike the notice of substitution of Plaintiff without amendment.
The motion to strike should state that no objection to granting the
order to amend, but that the circumstances should be pled and we should
be able to respond with a denial and affirmative defenses if you choose.
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